Help with this question add formula please ABLE 74 a of Bve
Solution
Answer )
The terminal value (TV) = (FCFn x (1 + g)) / (K – g)
Where:
FCF = free cash flow
g = perpetual growth rate of FCF
K = expected return
In the table 7.4 ,
Year 1 , FCF=Dividend =2.68 , g = 8% , K =12% TV= 2.68*(1+0.08)/ (.12-0.08) = $ 72.32.
Year 2 , Dividend = 2.68 * (1+g) = 2.68 *1.08 = 2.894 ,
so present value of dividend = Dividend for 1 year + PV ( dividend of 2nd year)
= 2.68 + 2.894/ 1.12 = 5.26
So, increase in dividend value = 5.26 - 2.68 = 2.58
=> change in terminal value = $ 72.32 - 2.58 = $ 69.74
And calculated in same manner for further years .
Now, As there is change in g = 6% , new calculation will be:
Year 1 , FCF=Dividend =2.68 , g = 6% , K =12% TV= 2.68*(1+0.06)/ (.12-0.06) = $ 47.32
Value per share = TV + dividend = $ 50
Year 2 , Dividend = 2.68 * (1+g) = 2.68 *1.06 = 2.84 ,
so present value of dividend = Dividend for 1 year + PV ( dividend of 2nd year)
= 2.68 + 2.84/ 1.12 = 5.22
So, increase in dividend value = 5.22 - 2.68 = 2.54
=> change in terminal value = $ 47.32 - 2.54 = $ 44.78
Value per share = TV + dividend = $ 50
Year 3 , Dividend = 2.84 * (1+g) = 2.84 *1.06 = $3 ,
so present value of dividend = PV ( dividend till 2nd year) + PV (dividend of 3rd year)
= 5.22 + 3/ 1.12 = 7.90
So, increase in dividend value = 7.90- 5.22 = 2.68
=> change in terminal value = $ 44.78 - 2.68 = $ 42.10
Value per share = TV + dividend = $ 50
Year 10 ,
Dividend = 2.68 * (1+g)^10 = 2.68 *(1.06)^9 = 4.54 ,
so present value of dividend = PV ( dividend from 1 to 10 year) ..... in in excel below
= 21.18
So, increase in dividend value = 21.18 - 7.90 = 13.28
=> change in terminal value = $ 42.10 - 13.28 = $ 28.82
Value per share = TV + dividend = $ 50
New table will be .
PV of dividend calculation excel.
| Year | PV (dividend) | PV ( terminal value) | Value per share |
| 1 | $2.68 | $47.32 | $50.00 |
| 2 | $5.22 | $44.78 | $50.00 |
| 3 | $7.90 | $42.10 | $50.00 |
| 10 | $21.18 | $28.82 | $50.00 |

