Prove that if f is an entire function which satisfies fz gre
Solution
Let f(z) = u (x,y) +i v (x,y).
Then |f(z)| = u2 + v2 =constant = c, where c is real number. .....(1)
Differentiating partially (1) with respect to x and y,
2 u ux +2 v v x = 0 ......(2)
2 u uy +2 v v y = 0 ......(3)
Since te function f(z) is entire function , it satisfies Cauchy-Riemann equations. Using the Cauchy-Riemann equations, i.e. ux = v y and uy = - v x , and substituting in equations (2) and (3). Here we obtain the equations in terms of ux and uy :
2 u ux - 2 v u y = 0 ......(4)
2 u uy + 2 v u x = 0 ......(5)
Multiplying the (4) by u and (5) by v and adding,
(2 u ux - 2 v u y) u +(2 u uy +2 v u x) v = 0,
2(u2 + v2 ) ux = 2 c ux = 0,
It implies that ux = 0, since c # 0. Hence, u( x, y) is independent of x.
Multiplying the (4) by v and (5) by u and subtracting,
(2 u ux- 2 v u y) v - (2 u uy +2 v u x) u = 0,
2(u2 + v2 ) uy = 2 c uy = 0,
It implies that uy = 0, since c # 0. Hence, u( x, y) is independent of y.
Therefore, u(x,y) = real constant = c1 ......(6)
Similarly, using the Cauchy-Riemann equations, i.e. ux = v y and uy = - v x , and writing the equations in terms of vx and vy :
2 u vy + 2 v v x = 0 ......(7)
- 2 u vx + 2 v v y = 0 ......(8)
Multiplying the (7) by u and (8) by v and adding,
(2 u vy + 2 v v x ) u +(- 2 u vx + 2 v v y ) v = 0,
2(u2 + v2 ) vy = 2 c vy = 0,
It implies that vy = 0, since c # 0. Hence, v( x, y) is independent of y.
Multiplying the (7) by v and (8) by u and subtracting,
(2 u vy + 2 v v x ) v - (- 2 u vx + 2 v v y ) u = 0,
2(u2 + v2 ) vx = 2 c vx = 0,
It implies that vx = 0, since c # 0. Hence, v( x, y) is independent of x.
Hence, v(x,y) = real constant = c2 ......(9)
Thus, f(z) = u (x,y) +i v (x,y) = c1 + i c2 = A complex constant.

