Is the following statement correct Explain why Let fz sin z

Is the following statement correct? Explain why. Let f(z) = sin z; then f(z) is an entire function and |sin z| lessthanorequalto 1. By Lowville\'s Theorem, f(z) is a constant on C.

Solution

NO: It\'s not true

since Non constant entire function is unbounded

sin z is entire function and non constant function

there fore sin z is unbounded function