Show that logn is not polynomially bounded but loglogn is po
Solution
I myself don\'t know the exact answer but I do find answer of it on Quora. May be it helps you.
Let A1=logn!A1=logn!, A2=lg(lgn)!A2=lg(lgn)! or A1=logn!A1=logn!, A2=lg(lgn)!A2=lg(lgn)! or A1,A2A1,A2 are corresponding expressions in terms of -function.
I\'m not going to be rigorous either.
You have obviously k!<kkk!<kk for kN2.kN2.
It implies for n0n0 that A2<lg(lg(n))lg(lg(n))=10lg(lg(n))lg(lg(lg(n))).A2<lg(lg(n))lg(lg(n))=10lg(lg(n))lg(lg(lg(n))).
On the other hand, n=10lg(n)n=10lg(n).
So you can just compare exponents lg(n)lg(n) and lg(lg(n))lg(lg(lg(n)))lg(lg(n))lg(lg(lg(n))) for n0.n0.
It amounts to comparing NN and lgNlg(lgN)lgNlg(lgN) for N0.N0.
Now I think the answer is obvious, since lgN<NlgN<N for any R>0R>0 and N0.N0.Thus A2A2 is polynomially bounded.
Using Stirling\'s approximation you can analogously treat the case of A1.A1. Basically, it will boil down to the comparison of elognlog(logn)elognlog(logn) and emlogn,emlogn, where mm is a constant (a power of some polynomial). So A1A1 is not polynomially bounded
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